Chapter III
The Sources of the Gospels and the Way of Writing Them
Section I: The Texts which have been attributed to the Old Testament, while they are not written in it
Matthew 2:22 But when he heard that Archelaus was reigning over Judea instead of his father Herod, he was afraid to go there. And being warned by God in a dream, he turned aside into the region of Galilee.
Matthew 2:23 And he came and dwelt in a city called Nazareth, that it might be fulfilled which was spoken by the prophets, "He shall be called a Nazarene."
In this text Matthew says that Joseph went and dwelt in Nazareth to fulfill what was spoken by the prophets that Jesus should be called a Nazarene, and this text did not exist, because it's not written in the books of the prophets, nor in the rest of the Old Testament books, so why Matthew wrote this text and said that the prophets have said this phrase?!
This text indicates that the Gospels contain false texts, which are not accepted by the Lord and people, as shown previously.
John 1:45 Philip found Nathanael and said to him, "We have found Him of whom Moses in the law, and also the prophets, wrote, Jesus of Nazareth, the son of Joseph."
John 1:46 And Nathanael said to him, "Can anything good come out of Nazareth?" Philip said to him, "Come and see."
In this text John writes on the lips of Philip that they have found of whom wrote Moses in the Law and the prophets, Jesus of Nazareth, the son of Joseph, this text also does not exist in the Law, nor in the books of the prophets, as well as it contrasts with the other Gospels, which say that Jesus was born of a woman without any male intervention, and he was conceived in his mother from the Holy Spirit, (Matthew 1:20), and Joseph had no union with Mary until she gave birth to Jesus, (Matthew 1:25), (this paragraph has been changed in some versions to "and did not know her till she had brought forth her firstborn Son")!
So why John wrote this text and attributed it to Moses and the prophets, with his knowledge that he contrasts with the other Gospels?
So, does the law "do not accept the lying and false" apply to this text, which had been attributed to Moses and the prophets, while it's not written in the Old Testament, or not?!
Section II: The Texts that have been attributed to some of the Books of the Old Testament, while they are written in other Books
Matthew 27:3 Then Judas, His betrayer, seeing that He had been condemned, was remorseful and brought back the thirty pieces of silver to the chief priests and elders,
Matthew 27:4 saying, "I have sinned by betraying innocent blood." And they said, "What is that to us? You see to it!"
Matthew 27:5 Then he threw down the pieces of silver in the temple and departed, and went and hanged himself.
Matthew 27:6 But the chief priests took the silver pieces and said, "It is not lawful to put them into the treasury, because they are the price of blood."
Matthew 27:7 And they consulted together and bought with them the potter’s field, to bury strangers in.
Matthew 27:8 Therefore that field has been called the Field of Blood to this day.
Matthew 27:9 Then was fulfilled what was spoken by Jeremiah the prophet, saying, "And they took the thirty pieces of silver, the value of Him who was priced, whom they of the children of Israel priced,
Matthew 27:10 "and gave them for the potter’s field, as the Lord directed me."
In this text Matthew attributed the text of the thirty pieces of silver to the book of Jeremiah, and this is wrong, because it is written in the book of Zechariah, as in the following text:
Zechariah 11:12 Then I said to them, "If it is agreeable to you, give me my wages; and if not, refrain." So they weighed out for my wages thirty pieces of silver.
The lack of knowledge of Matthew of the Book that mentioned the text of the thirty pieces of silver; does this indicate to his extensive knowledge of the Old Testament, or that he wrote his Gospel by revelation or inspiration of the Holy Spirit?!
John 15:25 "But this happened that the word might be fulfilled which is written in their law, ‘They hated Me without a cause’.
In this text John attributed the paragraph "They hated me without a cause" to the Law, and this is wrong, because it is mentioned in the Psalms, not in the Law, as in the following texts:
Psalm 35:19 Let them not rejoice over me who are wrongfully my enemies; Nor let them wink with the eye who hate me without a cause.
Psalm 69:4 Those who hate me without a cause Are more than the hairs of my head; They are mighty who would destroy me, Being my enemies wrongfully; Though I have stolen nothing, I still must restore it.
As well as the Law is not called the Psalms, because the Law is the laws and commandments, which Moses had received from the Lord, which is the first five Books of the Old Testament, Genesis, Exodus, Leviticus, numbers and Deuteronomy, and the meaning of the word Law in the Hebrew language does not mean the word Psalms, because the word Law means Torah and the word Psalms means divine songs.
So, why John wrote this error, if he has written his Gospel by the revelation or the inspiration of the Holy Spirit, or at least if he has extensive knowledge in the Old Testament books?!
John 10:34 Jesus answered them, "Is it not written in your law, ‘I said, "You are gods’?"
John 10:35 "If He called them gods, to whom the word of God came (and the Scripture cannot be broken),
In this text John repeats the same error again, because the paragraph "I said, You are gods" not written in the Law, but in the Psalms, as in the following text:
Psalm 82:6 I said, "You are gods, And all of you are children of the Most High.
Psalm 82:7 But you shall die like men, And fall like one of the princes."
Psalm 82:8 Arise, O God, judge the earth; For You shall inherit all nations.
So why John could not distinguish between the Law and the Psalms?
Is it possible to the revelation or the Holy Spirit or the word of the Lord to fall in such as this error; if John has written his Gospel through the revelation or the inspiration of the Holy Spirit or the word of the Lord?!
Section III: The Texts that mentioned some names and numbers, which are contrary to what is written in the Old Testament
Matthew 23:35 "that on you may come all the righteous blood shed on the earth, from the blood of righteous Abel to the blood of Zechariah, son of Berechiah, whom you murdered between the temple and the altar.
Matthew 23:36 "Assuredly, I say to you, all these things will come upon this generation.
In this text Matthew says that the person who was killed by the Jews between the temple and the altar is Zechariah the son of Berechiah, and this is wrong, because the Old Testament says that the person who was killed by the Jews between the temple and the altar is Zechariah the son of Jehoiada, as in the following text:
2 Chronicles 24:20 Then the Spirit of God came upon Zechariah the son of Jehoiada the priest, who stood above the people, and said to them, "Thus says God: ‘Why do you transgress the commandments of the LORD, so that you cannot prosper? Because you have forsaken the LORD, He also has forsaken you’."
2 Chronicles 24:21 So they conspired against him, and at the command of the king they stoned him with stones in the court of the house of the LORD.
2 Chronicles 24:22 Thus Joash the king did not remember the kindness which Jehoiada his father had done to him, but killed his son; and as he died, he said, "The LORD look on it, and repay!"
Zechariah the son of Berechiah was of the prophets of the Children of Israel after the Babylonian Captivity; for this when Zacharias the son of Berechiah was alive there was no temple to kill him inside it by the Jews. Moreover there is no historical source says that the Jews killed him.
So, does Matthew's inability to determine the name of the man who was killed by the Jews refer that he has written this text through the inspiration of the Holy Spirit, or that he has extensive knowledge in the Old Testament?!
Thus, the law "do not accept the lying and false" applies to this error.
Mark 2:25 But He said to them, "Have you never read what David did when he was in need and hungry, he and those with him:
Mark 2:26 "how he went into the house of God in the days of Abiathar the high priest, and ate the showbread, which is not lawful to eat, except for the priests, and also gave some to those who were with him?"
In this text Mark says that David went into the house of God in the days of Abiathar the high priest, and this is wrong, because the Old Testament says that David went into the house of God in the days of Ahimelech the priest, not in the days of Abiathar, who became a high priest after the death of his father Ahimelech, as in the following text:
1 Samuel 21:1 Now David came to Nob, to Ahimelech the priest. And Ahimelech was afraid when he met David, and said to him, "Why are you alone, and no one is with you?"
Does such as this simple error in the name of the priest which written by Mark indicate that he has written his Gospel through the revelation or the inspiration of the Holy Spirit?!
Act 7:15 "So Jacob went down to Egypt; and he died, he and our fathers.
Act 7:16 "And they were carried back to Shechem and laid in the tomb that Abraham bought for a sum of money from the sons of Hamor, the father of Shechem.
In this text Luke writes that the one who bought the tomb of Shechem is Abraham, and this is wrong, because the Old Testament states that the one who bought the tomb of Shechem is Jacob, not Abraham, as in the following texts:
Joshua 24:32 The bones of Joseph, which the children of Israel had brought up out of Egypt, they buried at Shechem, in the plot of ground which Jacob had bought from the sons of Hamor the father of Shechem for one hundred pieces of silver, and which had become an inheritance of the children of Joseph.
Genesis 33:19 And he bought the parcel of land, where he had pitched his tent, from the children of Hamor, Shechem’s father, for one hundred pieces of money.
So does this mistake indicate that Luke has written the Acts of Apostles through the revelation or the inspiration of the Holy Spirit, or even that he has wide knowledge in the Old Testament?
Act 7:14 "Then Joseph sent and called his father Jacob and all his relatives to him, seventy-five people.
In this text Luke says that the number of those who went into Egypt are seventy-five people, and this is also wrong, because the Old Testament says that whom went into Egypt seventy persons, as in the following text:
Genesis 46:26 All the persons who went with Jacob to Egypt, who came from his body, besides Jacob’s sons’ wives, were sixty-six persons in all.
Genesis 46:27 And the sons of Joseph who were born to him in Egypt were two persons. All the persons of the house of Jacob who went to Egypt were seventy.
Hence, the inability of Luke to determine the number of those who went into Egypt; is it from the Spirit of God or from the spirit of evil?!
Luke 4:25 "But I tell you truly, many widows were in Israel in the days of Elijah, when the heaven was shut up three years and six months, and there was a great famine throughout all the land;
In this text Luke writes on the lips of Jesus that he said that the heaven was shut up three years and six months in the time of Elijah, and this is also wrong, because the Old Testament says that the interruption of the rain was less than three years, as in the following texts:
1Kings 17:1 And Elijah the Tishbite, of the inhabitants of Gilead, said to Ahab, "As the LORD God of Israel lives, before whom I stand, there shall not be dew nor rain these years, except at my word."
1Kings 18:1 And it came to pass after many days that the word of the LORD came to Elijah, in the third year, saying, "Go, present yourself to Ahab, and I will send rain on the earth."
As we read that the rain came in the third year, not as Luke said, and this shows that his knowledge of the Old Testament was not widely! And this error was written also by James in his letter (James 5:17-18), as shown previously.
From these errors and many others appears to us that there are texts and stories in the Gospels could not to be written through the revelation, or by the inspiration of the Holy Spirit, which means that they are not the Word of the Lord or a revelation from Him, because the Word of the Lord and the revelation do not fall in any error, as well as falling in such simple errors, which does not need more than basic general knowledge in what is written in the Old Testament for not writing them.
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