Chapter
III
Section
I: The Texts which have been attributed to the Old Testament, while they are
not written in it
Matthew 2:22 But when he heard that Archelaus was reigning over
Judea instead of his father Herod, he was afraid to go there. And being warned
by God in a dream, he turned aside into the region of Galilee.
Matthew 2:23 And he came and dwelt in a city called Nazareth, that
it might be fulfilled which was spoken by the prophets, "He
shall be called a Nazarene."
In
this text Matthew says that Joseph went and dwelt in Nazareth to fulfill what was
spoken by the prophets that Jesus should be called a Nazarene, and this text did
not exist, because it's not written in the books of the prophets, nor in the
rest of the Old Testament books, so why Matthew wrote this text and said that
the prophets have said this phrase?!
This
text indicates that the Gospels contain false texts, which are not accepted by
the Lord and people, as shown previously.
John 1:45 Philip found Nathanael and said to him, "We
have found Him of whom Moses in the law, and also the prophets,
wrote — Jesus of Nazareth, the son of Joseph."
John 1:46 And Nathanael said to him, "Can anything good come
out of Nazareth?" Philip said to him, "Come and see."
In
this text John writes on the lips of Philip that they have found of whom wrote
Moses in the Law and the prophets, Jesus of Nazareth, the son of Joseph, this
text also does not exist in the Law, nor in the books of the prophets, as well
as it contrasts with the other Gospels, which say that Jesus was born of a
woman without any male intervention, and he was conceived in his mother from
the Holy Spirit, (Matthew 1:20), and Joseph had no union with Mary until she
gave birth to Jesus, (Matthew 1:25), (this paragraph has been changed in some
versions to "and did not know her till she had brought forth her firstborn
Son")!
So
why John wrote this text and attributed it to Moses and the prophets, with his
knowledge that he contrasts with the other Gospels?
So,
does the law "do not accept the lying and false" apply to this text,
which had been attributed to Moses and the prophets, while it's not written in
the Old Testament, or not?!
Section
II: The Texts that have been attributed to some of the Books of the Old Testament,
while they are written in other Books
Matthew 27:3 Then Judas, His betrayer, seeing that He had been
condemned, was remorseful and brought back the thirty pieces of silver
to the chief priests and elders,
Matthew 27:4 saying, "I have sinned by betraying innocent
blood." And they said, "What is
that to us? You see to it!"
Matthew 27:5 Then he threw down the pieces of silver in the temple
and departed, and went and hanged himself.
Matthew 27:6 But the chief priests took the silver pieces and
said, "It is not lawful to put them into the treasury, because they are
the price of blood."
Matthew 27:7 And they consulted together and bought
with them the potter’s field, to bury strangers in.
Matthew 27:8 Therefore that field has been called the Field of
Blood to this day.
Matthew 27:9 Then was fulfilled what was spoken by Jeremiah
the prophet, saying, "And they took the thirty pieces of
silver, the value of Him who was priced, whom they of the children of Israel
priced,
Matthew 27:10 "and gave them for the potter’s field,
as the Lord directed me."
In
this text Matthew attributed the text of the thirty pieces of silver to the
book of Jeremiah, and this is wrong, because it is written in the book of
Zechariah, as in the following text:
Zechariah 11:12 Then I said to them, "If it is agreeable to
you, give me my wages; and if not,
refrain." So they weighed out for my wages thirty pieces of silver.
The
lack of knowledge of Matthew of the Book that mentioned the text of the thirty
pieces of silver; does this indicate to his extensive knowledge of the Old
Testament, or that he wrote his Gospel by revelation or inspiration of the Holy
Spirit?!
John 15:25 "But
this happened that the word
might be fulfilled which is written in their law, ‘They hated Me
without a cause’.
In
this text John attributed the paragraph "They hated me without a
cause" to the Law, and this is wrong, because it is mentioned in the
Psalms, not in the Law, as in the following texts:
Psalm 35:19 Let them not rejoice over me who are wrongfully my
enemies; Nor let them wink with the eye who hate me without a cause.
Psalm 69:4 Those who hate me without a cause Are more than
the hairs of my head; They are mighty who would destroy me, Being my enemies wrongfully; Though I
have stolen nothing, I still must
restore it.
As
well as the Law is not called the Psalms, because the Law is the laws and
commandments, which Moses had received from the Lord, which is the first five Books
of the Old Testament, Genesis, Exodus, Leviticus, numbers and Deuteronomy, and
the meaning of the word Law in the Hebrew language does not mean the word
Psalms, because the word Law means Torah and the word Psalms means divine
songs.
So
why John wrote this error, if he has written his Gospel by the revelation or
the inspiration of the Holy Spirit, or at least if he has extensive knowledge
in the Old Testament books?!
John 10:34 Jesus answered them, "Is it not written in your law, ‘I said,
"You are gods’?"
John 10:35 "If
He called them gods, to whom the word of God came (and the Scripture
cannot be broken),
In
this text John repeats the same error again, because the paragraph "I
said, You are gods" not written in the Law, but in the Psalms, as in the
following text:
Psalm 82:6 I said,
"You are gods, And
all of you are children of the Most
High.
Psalm 82:7 But you shall die like men, And
fall like one of the princes."
Psalm 82:8 Arise, O God, judge the earth; For
You shall inherit all nations.
So,
why John could not distinguish between the Law and the Psalms?
Is
it possible to the revelation or the Holy Spirit or the word of the Lord to
fall in such as this error, if John has written his Gospel through the
revelation or the inspiration of the Holy Spirit or the word of the Lord?!
Section
III: The Texts that mentioned some names and numbers, which are contrary to
what is written in the Old Testament
Matthew 23:35 "that
on you may come all the righteous blood shed on the earth, from the blood of
righteous Abel to the blood of Zechariah, son of Berechiah,
whom you murdered between the temple and the altar.
Matthew 23:36 "Assuredly,
I say to you, all these things will come upon this generation.
In
this text Matthew says that the person who was killed by the Jews between the
temple and the altar is Zechariah the son of Berechiah, and this is wrong,
because the Old Testament says that the person who was killed by the Jews
between the temple and the altar is Zechariah the son of Jehoiada, as in the
following text:
2 Chronicles
24:20 Then the Spirit of God came upon Zechariah the son of Jehoiada
the priest, who stood above the people, and said to them, "Thus says God:
‘Why do you transgress the commandments of the LORD, so that you cannot
prosper? Because you have forsaken the LORD, He also has forsaken you’."
2 Chronicles
24:21 So they conspired against him, and at the command of the king they
stoned him with stones in the court of the house of the LORD.
2 Chronicles
24:22 Thus Joash the king did not remember the kindness which Jehoiada his
father had done to him, but killed his son; and as he died, he said, "The
LORD look on it, and repay!"
Zechariah
the son of Berechiah was of the prophets of the Children of Israel after the
Babylonian Captivity, for this when Zacharias the son of Berechiah was alive
there was no temple to kill him inside it by the Jews. Moreover there is no
historical source says that the Jews killed him.
So,
does Matthew's inability to determine the name of the man who was killed by the
Jews refer that he has written this text through the inspiration of the Holy
Spirit, or that he has extensive knowledge in the Old Testament?!
Thus,
the law "do not accept the lying and false" applies to this error.
Mark 2:25 But He said to them, "Have you never read what David did when he was in need and
hungry, he and those with him:
Mark 2:26 "how
he went into the house of God in the days
of Abiathar the high priest, and ate the showbread, which is not
lawful to eat, except for the priests, and also gave some to those who were
with him?"
In
this text Mark says that David went into the house of God in the days of
Abiathar the high priest, and this is wrong, because the Old Testament says
that David went into the house of God in the days of Ahimelech the priest, not
in the days of Abiathar, who became a high priest after the death of his father
Ahimelech, as in the following text:
1 Samuel 21:1 Now David came to Nob, to
Ahimelech the priest. And Ahimelech was afraid when he met David, and
said to him, "Why are you alone,
and no one is with you?"
Does
such as this simple error in the name of the priest which written by Mark indicate
that he has written his Gospel through the revelation or the inspiration of the
Holy Spirit?!
Act 7:15 "So Jacob went down to Egypt; and he died, he and
our fathers.
Act 7:16 "And they were carried back to Shechem and
laid in the tomb that Abraham bought for a sum of money from the sons
of Hamor, the father of Shechem.
In
this text Luke writes that the one who bought the tomb of Shechem is Abraham,
and this is wrong, because the Old Testament states that the one who bought the
tomb of Shechem is Jacob, not Abraham, as in the following texts:
Joshua 24:32 The bones of Joseph, which the children of Israel had
brought up out of Egypt, they buried at Shechem, in the plot of ground which
Jacob had bought from the sons of Hamor the father of Shechem for one
hundred pieces of silver, and which had become an inheritance of the children
of Joseph.
Genesis 33:19 And he bought the parcel of land, where he had
pitched his tent, from the children of Hamor, Shechem’s father, for one
hundred pieces of money.
So
does this mistake indicate that Luke has written the Acts of Apostles through
the revelation or the inspiration of the Holy Spirit, or even that he has
extensive knowledge in the Old Testament?
Act 7:14 "Then Joseph sent and called his father Jacob and
all his relatives to him, seventy-five
people.
In
this text Luke says that the number of those who went into Egypt are
seventy-five people, and this is also wrong, because the Old Testament says
that whom went into Egypt seventy persons, as in the following text:
Genesis 46:26 All the persons who went with Jacob to Egypt,
who came from his body, besides Jacob’s sons’ wives, were sixty-six persons in all.
Genesis 46:27 And the sons of Joseph who were born to him in Egypt
were two persons. All the
persons of the house of Jacob who went to Egypt were seventy.
Hence,
the inability of Luke to determine the number of those who went into Egypt; is
it from the Spirit of God or from the spirit of evil?!
Luke 4:25 "But
I tell you truly, many widows were in Israel in the days of Elijah, when the
heaven was shut up three years and six months, and there was a great
famine throughout all the land;
In
this text Luke writes on the lips of Jesus that he said that the heaven was
shut up three years and six months in the time of Elijah, and this is also wrong,
because the Old Testament says that the interruption of the rain was less than
three years, as in the following texts:
1Kings 17:1 And Elijah
the Tishbite, of the inhabitants of Gilead, said to Ahab, "As the LORD God of Israel lives, before
whom I stand, there shall not be dew nor rain these years, except
at my word."
1Kings 18:1 And it came to pass after many days that the word of the
LORD came to Elijah, in the third year, saying, "Go, present
yourself to Ahab, and I will send rain on the earth."
As
we read that the rain came in the third year, not as Luke said, and this shows
that his knowledge of the Old Testament was not widely! And this error was
written also by James in his letter (James 5:17-18), as shown previously.
From these errors and many others appears to us that there are texts and stories in the Gospels could not to be written through the revelation, or by the inspiration of the Holy Spirit, which means that they are not the Word of the Lord or a revelation from Him, because the Word of the Lord and the revelation do not fall in any error, as well as falling in such simple errors, which does not need more than basic general knowledge in what is written in the Old Testament for not writing them.
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